V=integral of (1/x)dx * pi [0,infinite)
V=(ln infinite - ln(1)) * pi 
V=pi
In order to find the Surface Area (SA) you must do the following:
SA=((1-(x^(-4)))^(1/2))dx from [1,infinite) * pi * integral of 1/(x^2)dx
SA=infinite
This is not a paradox because the volume approaches a finite number (pi) as the function approaches infinite and the surface area does not approach a finite number as the function approaches infinite.
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